

CBDT vide Press Release dated Dated 22.03.2023: has issued AIS Mobile app to make user easier to give feedback for transaction reflected in AIS/TIS. Govt has issued clarification also that if taxpayer is disagree with the AIS/TIS information, he needs to submit the feedback and accordingly action will be taken by the Income tax dept. If any mismatch is there with the information and filed ITR then dept will issue notice and taxpayer need to comply the same.
| S No. | Description of supply | Maximum rate at which GST compensation cess may be collected | |
| Existing | Proposed | ||
| 1. | Pan Masala | 135% ad valorem | 51% of retail sale price per unit |
| 2. | Tobacco and manufactured tobacco substitutes, including tobacco product | Rs. 4170 per 1000 sticks or 290% ad valorem or a combination thereof, but not exceeding Rs. 4170 per 1000 sticks plus 290% ad valorem | Rs. 4170 per 1000 sticks or 290% ad valorem or a combination thereof, but not exceeding Rs. 4170 per 1000 sticks plus 290% ad valorem or 100% of retail sale price per unit |
| HSN Code | Description of Goods | Old Import Duty | New Import Duty |
| 90221410 | X-ray generators and apparatus | 10 % | 15 % |
| 90221420 | Portable X-ray machine | 10 % | 15 % |
| 90221490 | Others | 10 % | 15 % |
| 29335950 | Bispyribac-sodium (ISO) | 7.5 % | 10 % |
Govt. establishes C-PACE, to fasten the voluntarily winding up process
The Centre has taken the next big step towards accelerating the process for voluntary winding up of companies. The Corporate Affairs Ministry (MCA) has now established a dedicated unit — Centre for Processing Accelerated Corporate Exit (C-PACE) in IMT Manesar, Gurugram — as part of its overall efforts to speed up the voluntary winding up of companies from the currently required two years to less than 6 months. C-PACE will be located at the Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) in Manesar.

Disclaimer: Information in this note is intended to provide only a general update of the subjects covered. It is not intended to be a substitute for detailed research or the exercise of professional judgment. KNM accepts no responsibility for loss arising from any action taken or not taken by anyone using this publication. Updates are for the period from 26th Feb till 25th Mar. 2023.


If you are Incorporating a new company or having an existing company that has all the Directors who are not Residents of India, you need to hire one Indian Resident Director.
We shall be happy to provide the services of the Resident Director from our team. In case of any clarifications or for deeper discussion, feel free to revert us at services@knmindia.com
Disclaimer: Information in this note is intended to provide only a general update on the subjects covered. It is not intended to be a substitute for detailed research or the exercise of professional judgment. KNM accepts no responsibility for loss arising from any action taken or not taken by anyone using this publication.
(a) Form GSTR-1 has been amended to change the manner of reporting details relating to supplies made through the e-commerce operator (‘ECO’);
(b)The procedure is prescribed for filing an application for refund by the unregistered buyers where the contract/ agreement for the supply of services, like construction of flat/house and long-term insurance policy, is canceled;
(c) Rule 37A is inserted to provide for the mechanism and time limit of reversal of ITC by the recipient where the supplier does not pay the tax to the Government. If supplier has not deposited the GST by 30th September then buyer has the time limit to reverse it by 30th November. After the same buyer has to reverse the same with interest.
(d) New Rule 88C and Form GST DRC-01B introduced for issuing intimation to the taxpayer for the differences between liability reported in Form GSTR-1 and Form GSTR-3B, where such difference exceeds a specified amount and/or percentage;
(e) Rule 37(1) is amended w.e.f. 01-10-2022 to provide for the reversal of input tax credit only proportionate to the amount not paid to the supplier vis-a-vis the value of the supply, including tax payable;
(f) Rule 108 and Rule 109 are amended to provide clarity on the requirement of submission of the certified copy of the order appealed against and the issuance of final acknowledgment by the appellate authority; and
(g) New Rule 109C and Form GST APL-01/03W are introduced to provide the facility for withdrawal of an application of appeal up to a certain specified stage.
SEBI introduces Information Database and Repository on Municipal Bonds
SEBI vide its press release no. 1/2023 dated 22/01/2023 announced as a part of its initiative to develop Bond markets, an outreach programme on Municipal Bonds and Municipal Finance was organized on January 20 and 21, 2023 at New Delhi to provide a common platform for stakeholders to discuss the concerns of the issuers of Municipal Debt Securities, the requirements of investors, the extant regulatory framework and to recommend measures to increase awareness of and improve traction in the market for Municipal Debt Securities.
IBBI specifies the proforma for reporting the liquidator’s decision, if different from the advice of SCC
The IBBI has made available an electronic platform at www.ibbi.gov.in, for reporting the liquidator’s decisions different from the advice given by the SCC. The insolvency professionals are directed to make use of the aforesaid proforma for reporting to the Board and Adjudicating Authority, under proviso to sub-regulation (10) of regulation 31A. This Circular is issued in exercise of the powers under section 196 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
Disclaimer: Information in this note is intended to provide only a general update of the subjects covered. It is not intended to be a substitute for detailed research or the exercise of professional judgment. KNM accepts no responsibility for loss arising from any action taken or not taken by anyone using this publication. Updates are for the period from 26th Dec till 25th Jan. 2023.


SEBI proposes regulatory framework for index providers; prescribes various compliances and conditions
With the objective of furthering transparency and accountability in financial benchmarks / indices in the Indian securities market, the SEBI has proposed a regulatory framework for index providers. The Index providers offering indices for use in India shall be required to register with SEBI for the introduction of indices in India. Further, it shall be a legal entity incorporated under the Companies Act. Also, many conditions have been prescribed.
IBBI specifies the proforma for reporting the liquidator’s decision if different from the advice of SCC
The IBBI has made available an electronic platform at www.ibbi.gov.in, for reporting the liquidator’s decisions different from the advice given by the SCC. The insolvency professionals are directed to make use of the aforesaid proforma for reporting to the Board and Adjudicating Authority, under proviso to sub-regulation (10) of regulation 31A. This Circular is issued in exercise of the powers under section 196 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016

Disclaimer: Information in this note is intended to provide only a general update of the subjects covered. It is not intended to be a substitute for detailed research or the exercise of professional judgment. KNM accepts no responsibility for loss arising from any action taken or not taken by anyone using this publication. Updates are for the period from 25th Nov till 25th Dec 2022.


To further amend the Companies (Removal of Names of Companies from the Register of Companies) Rules, 2016, which shall come into force on the date of their publication in the Official Gazette i.e. 24-08-2022. Through this amendment, MCA has revised Form No. STK-1, Form No. STK-5 and Form No. STK-5A to capture the declaration that the company is not carrying on any business or operations, as revealed after the physical verification, as carried out by the Registrar of companies under the provisions of Section 12(9) of the Companies Act, 2013.
These forms will be launched on August 31, 2022 at 12:00 AM. Following forms will be rolled out in this phase: DIR3-KYC Web, DIR3-KYC Eform, DPT-3, DPT-4, CHG-1, CHG-4, CHG-6, CHG-8 & CHG-9. To facilitate implementation of these forms in the V3 MCA21 portal, stakeholders are advised to note that the Company e-Filings on the V2 portal will be disabled from 15th Aug 2022 at 12:00 AM for the above 9 forms. All stakeholders are advised to ensure that there are no SRNs in pending payment and Resubmission status. Further, offline payments for the above 9 forms in V2 using the Pay later option would be stopped from August 07, 2022 at 12:00 AM. You are requested to make payments for these forms in V2 through online mode (Credit/Debit Card and Net Banking).
The Through this amendment, MCA has modified the manner in which the books of accounts are kept in electronic mode. The amendment is brought under Rule, 3 which deals with the manner of books of accounts to be kept in electronic mode in which the books of account and other relevant books and papers maintained in electronic mode shall remain accessible in India, at all times so as to be usable for subsequent reference. Under sub-rule 5, there shall be a proper system for storage, retrieval, display or printout of the electronic records as the Audit Committee, if any, or the Board may deem appropriate and such records shall not be disposed of or rendered unusable unless permitted by law. Provided that the back-up of the books of account and other books and papers of the company is maintained in electronic mode, including at a place outside India, if any, shall be kept in servers physically located in India on a daily basis. Further, the company shall intimate to the Registrar on an annual basis at the time of filing of financial statement, the information about the service provider who maintains the books of accounts and other documents in electric mode.
In the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014, Rule 25B relating to Physical verification of the Registered Office of the company has been inserted. The Rule provides that If Registrar has a reasonable cause to believe that the Company is not carrying on any business or operations pursuant to section 12(9) of the Companies Act, 2013, the Registrar may carry out Physical verification of the Registered Office. The physical verification of the said registered office should be done in presence of two independent witnesses of the locality in which the said registered office is situated and may also seek the assistance of the local Police for such verification if required. Further, the Registrar shall carry the documents as filed with the MCA while physical verification and shall cross-check with the documents filed by the Company. The Registrar shall take a photograph of the registered office while performing physical verification. The report of such verification shall be prepared and relevant attachments shall be attached. Where the registrar is not getting any reply from the Company on the notices sent by it, the Registrar shall send a notice to the Company and its directors of intention to remove the name of the Company from the register of companies within 30 days from the notice.
MCA21-version 3 is a technology-driven forward-looking project, envisioned to strengthen enforcement, promote Ease of Doing Business and enhance user experience. MCA21 version-3.0 rollout has been planned in phases to ensure minimum disruption in regulatory filings. To start with 9 (Nine) company forms (Form CHG-1, Form CHG-4, Form CHG-6, Form CHG-8, Form CHG-9, Form DIR-3 KYC, Form DIR-3 KYC WEB, Form DPT-3 and Form DPT-4) has been scheduled to go-live from September 01, 2022. The remaining company forms and other modules like e-Adjudication, and Compliance Management System are scheduled to be fully deployed within this Calendar Year. In view of the upcoming launch of 09 Company forms in version-3, LLP filings on the MCA21 V-3 portal will not be available from 27th Aug (00:00 AM) to 28th Aug (23:59hrs). However, the MCA21 V-2 Portal for company filings will remain available.
To further amend the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014. The amended Rules shall come into force on the date of their publication in the Official Gazette i.e. 29-08-2022. Keeping in mind the launch of MCA V3 for Companies Act Forms, MCA has released the amended version of the eForms DIR-3-KYC and web-form DIR-3-KYC-WEB and the same have been substituted in place of the old forms. It is clarified that in the case of Indian nationals, the Income-tax Permanent Account Number (Income-tax PAN) is mandatory in all cases even if there is no change in Income-tax PAN. In such cases, director details should be as per Income-tax PAN. In case the details as per Income-tax PAN are incorrect, the director/designated partner is advised to first correct the details in Income-tax PAN. The new forms would be made available from 01-09-2022 on the MCA portal.
As per the new guidelines, AIFs/VCFs shall file an application to SEBI for allocation of overseas investment limit in the notified format and they shall invest in an overseas investee company, which is incorporated in a country whose securities market regulator is a signatory to the International Organization of Securities Commission’s Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding or a signatory to the bilateral Memorandum of Understanding with SEBI. AIFs/VCFs shall not invest in an overseas investee company, which is incorporated in a country identified in the public statement of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as a jurisdiction having a strategic Anti-Money Laundering or Combating the Financing of Terrorism deficiencies to which counter measures apply; or a jurisdiction that has not made sufficient progress in addressing the deficiencies or has not committed to an action plan developed with FATF to address the deficiencies. Further, if an AIF/VCF liquidates an investment made in an overseas investee company previously, the sale proceeds received from such liquidation to the extent of investment made in the said overseas investee company shall be available to all AIFs/VCFs (including the selling AIF/VCF) for reinvestment. Furthermore, the AIFs/VCFs shall furnish the sale/divestment details of the overseas investments to SEBI in the format given in Annexure B within 3 working days of the divestment, for updating the overall limit available for overseas investment by AIFs/VCFs. All the overseas investments sold/divested by AIFs/VCFs to date shall also be reported to SEBI in the format given in Annexure B within 30 days from the date of this circular.
Through this amendment, the definition for the term “related party “under section 2(1)(PA) has been notified which means a director, partner, or his relative; key managerial personnel or his relative; a firm, in which a director, partner, manager or his relative is a partner; a private company in which a director, partner or manager or his relative is a member or director; a public company in which a director, partner or manager is a director or holds along with his relatives, more than two percent. of its paid-up share capital; anybody corporate whose board of directors, managing director or manager is accustomed to acting in accordance with the advice, directions or instructions of a director, partner or manager; a related party as defined under the applicable accounting standards; such other person as may be specified by the Board. Provided that, any person or entity forming a part of the promoter or promoter group of the listed entity; any person or any entity, holding equity shares: (i) of twenty percent or more; or (ii) of ten percent or more, with effect from April 1, 2023; in the listed entity either directly or on a beneficial interest basis as provided under section 89 of the Companies Act, 2013, at any time, during the immediately preceding financial year; shall be deemed to be a related party. Further, the portfolio manager shall ensure compliance with the prudential limits on investments as may be specified by the Board. The prudential limits shall be applicable at the client level at the time of making investments by the portfolio managers. The portfolio manager shall not be allowed to invest clients’ funds in unrated securities of their related parties or their associates.
For the entities against whom proceedings have been initiated and are pending before any forum or authority, viz. Courts/SAT, Adjudicating Officer, and Recovery Officer (provided an appeal has been filed and the same is pending before the SAT/Court). The terms and conditions along with the FAQ of the Scheme, 2022 are also made available on the respective websites of SEBI and BSE on August 22, 2022. The Scheme shall commence on August 22, 2022 and end on November 21, 2022 (both days inclusive) or such other date as approved by the Competent Authority. The Scheme would be applicable in respect of the entities that have executed reversal trades in the illiquid stock options segment of BSE between April 1, 2014 and September 30, 2015 and against whom proceedings have been initiated and are pending before any forum or authority, viz. Courts/ SAT, Adjudicating Officer and Recovery Officer (provided an appeal has been filed and the same is pending before the SAT/Court); Entities against whom orders have been passed levying penalty that has not been paid and against whom recovery proceedings have been initiated, may be eligible for the scheme only if an appeal is filed and the same is pending before the Courts/ SAT. An entity desirous of availing of settlement under the Scheme would be required to submit a settlement application along with an application registration fee of Rs. 25,000/- + GST @18% in case of body corporates and Rs. 15,000/- + GST @18% in case of individuals in the specified format, available on the respective websites of SEBI and BSE
The enhanced norms shall be applicable to credit ratings of securities that are listed, or proposed to be listed, on a recognized stock exchange, and other credit ratings that are required under various SEBI Regulations or circulars thereunder. In order to standardize the methodology of computation and disclosure of a ‘sharp rating action’, it is clarified that CRAs shall compare two consecutive rating actions. Therefore, a CRA shall disclose a sharp rating action, if the rating change between two consecutive rating actions is more than or equal to 3 notches downward. In other words, if the difference in credit rating between two consecutive press releases is more than or equal to 3 notches downward, the same has to be included in the disclosure on sharp rating actions. In addition to the current disclosures of sharp rating actions excluding noncooperative issuers, CRAs shall also separately disclose sharp rating actions including such actions on non-cooperative issuers. Further, CRAs shall follow a uniform practice of three consecutive months of non-submission of No-default Statement (NDS) (or inability to validate timely debt servicing through other sources) as a ground for considering migrating the ratings to INC and shall tag such ratings as INC within a period of 7 days of three consecutive months of non-submission of NDS. The CRA in its judgment may migrate a rating to the INC category before the expiry of three consecutive months of non-receipt of NDS.
Under the new guidelines, the REIT/InvITS shall make an application for listing of the units to the stock exchange(s) and the units shall be listed within two working days from the date of allotment. Provided that where the REIT/InvIT fails to list the units within the specified time, the monies received shall be refunded through verifiable means within four working days from the date of the allotment, and if any such money is not repaid within such time after the issuer becomes liable to repay it, the REIT.InvIT, the manager of the REIT/InvIT and its director or partner who is an officer in default shall, on and from the expiry of the fourth working day, be jointly and severally liable to repay that money with interest at the rate of fifteen percent per annum. Further, the Preferential issue of units shall not be made to any person who has sold or transferred any units of the issuer during the 90 trading days preceding the relevant date. Further, where any person belonging to the sponsor(s) or Sponsor group(s) has sold/transferred their units of the issuer during the 90 days preceding the relevant date, all sponsors and members of sponsor group(s) shall be ineligible for allotment of units on a preferential basis. Provided that this restriction on preferential issue of units shall not apply to a sponsor(s) or member of the sponsor group, in case any asset is being acquired by the REIT/InvIT from that sponsor(s) and/or member of sponsor group(s), and the preferential issue of units is being made to that sponsor and/or member of the sponsor group, as full consideration for the acquisition of the such asset.
The recommendations including directions relating to All loan disbursals and repayments are required to be executed only between the bank accounts of the borrower and the RE without any pass-through/ pool account of the LSP or any third party; Any fees, charges, etc., payable to LSPs in the credit intermediation process shall be paid directly by RE and not by the borrower; A standardized Key Fact Statement (KFS) must be provided to the borrower before executing the loan contract; All-inclusive cost of digital loans in the form of Annual Percentage Rate (APR)6 is required to be disclosed to the borrowers. APR shall also form part of KFS; Automatic increase in credit limit without explicit consent of borrower is prohibited.; A cooling-off/ look-up period during which the borrowers can exit digital loans by paying the principal and the proportionate APR without any penalty shall be provided as part of the loan contract; REs shall ensure that they and the LSPs engaged by them shall have a suitable nodal grievance redressal officer to deal with FinTech/ digital lending related complaints. Such grievance redressal officers shall also deal with complaints against their respective DLAs. The details of the Grievance redressal officer shall be prominently indicated on the website of the RE, its LSPs and on DLAs, as applicable. Further, as per extant RBI guidelines, if any complaint lodged by the borrower is not resolved by the RE within the stipulated period (currently 30 days), he/she can lodge a complaint under the Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS)7.
RBI has simplified the existing framework for overseas investment and has aligned with the current business and economic dynamics. Clarity on Overseas Direct Investment and Overseas Portfolio Investment has been brought in and various overseas investment related transactions that were earlier under the approval route are now under the automatic route, significantly enhancing “Ease of Doing Business”. As per the amended Regulation, the Indian entity may lend or invest in any debt instrument issued by a foreign entity or extend the non-fund-based commitment to or on behalf of a foreign entity including overseas step-down subsidiaries of such Indian entity subject to the following conditions within the financial commitment limit as prescribed in the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Rules, 2022. An Indian entity may lend or invest in any debt instruments issued by a foreign entity subject to the condition that such loans are duly backed by a loan agreement where the rate of interest shall be charged on an arm’s length basis. It is clarified that for the purpose of this regulation, the expression “arm’s length” means a transaction between two related parties that is conducted as if they were unrelated so that there is no conflict of interest. Further, where a person resident in India acquires equity capital by way of subscription to an issue or by way of purchase from a person resident outside India or where a person resident outside India acquires equity capital by way of purchase from a person resident in India, and where such equity capital is reckoned as ODI, the payment of the amount of consideration for the equity capital acquired may be deferred for such definite period from the date of the agreement as provided in such agreement subject to prescribed terms and conditions.
The Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Rules shall apply to any investment made outside India by a financial institution in an IFSC or acquisition or transfer of any investment outside India made out of Resident Foreign Currency Account; or out of foreign currency resources held outside India by a person who is employed in India for a specific duration irrespective of length thereof or for a specific job or assignment, duration of which does not exceed three years; or in accordance with sub-section (4) of section 6 of the Act. Any investment or financial commitment outside India made in accordance with the Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder and held as on the date of publication of these rules in the Official Gazette, shall be deemed to have been made under these rules and the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Regulations, 2022. Further, any person resident in India who has an account appearing as a non-performing asset; or is classified as a willful defaulter by any bank; or is under investigation by a financial service regulator or by investigative agencies in India, namely, the Central Bureau of Investigation or Directorate of Enforcement or Serious Frauds Investigation Office, shall, before making any financial commitment or undertaking disinvestment under these rules or the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Regulations, 2022, obtain a No Objection Certificate from the lender bank or regulatory body or investigative agency by making an application in writing to such bank or regulatory body or investigative agency concerned. The No Objection Certificate issued shall be addressed by the lender bank or regulatory body or investigative agency concerned to the designated AD bank with an endorsement to the applicant. An Indian entity may make ODI by way of investment in equity capital for the purpose of undertaking bonafide business activity in the manner and subject to the limits and conditions as notified under these rules.
Disclaimer: Information in this note is intended to provide only a general update of the subjects covered. It is not intended to be a substitute for detailed research or the exercise of professional judgment. KNM accepts no responsibility for loss arising from any action taken or not taken by anyone using this publication. Updates are for the period 25.07.2022 till 25.08.2022

According to section 12(9) of Chapter II- Incorporation of Company and Matters Incidental Thereto, If the Registrar has reasonable cause to believe that the company is not carrying on any business or operations, he may cause a physical verification of the registered office of the company in such manner as may be prescribed and if any default is found to be made in complying with the requirements of subsection (1), he may without prejudice to the provisions of sub-section (8), initiate action for the removal of the name of the company from the register of companies under Chapter XVIII of the Companies Act, 2013.
In reference to the above provision, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs has inserted Rule 25B through its notification dated 18.08.2022 in the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014.
ROC has to prepare a Physical Verification Report of the Registered Office of the company in the given format.
Name and CIN of the Company.
Latest address of the registered office of the company as per MCA records.
Date of authorization letter issued by the ROC
Name of the ROC
Date and time for the physical verification of the Registered office
Location details along with landmark
Details of the person available, if any at the time of visit-
Remarks if any:-
Documents attached:-
(i) Copy of Agreement/ownership/rent agreement/NOC of the Registered Office of the company from owner/tenant/lessor.
(ii) Photograph of the registered office.
(iii) Self-attested ID card of the person available, if any.
Where the registered office of the company is found to be not capable of receiving and acknowledging all communications and notices, the Registrar shall send a notice to the company and all the directors of the company, of his intention to remove the name of the company from the register of companies and requesting them to send their representations along with copies of relevant documents, if any, within a period of thirty days from the date of the notice before taking further actions in accordance with the provisions of section 248 of the Act.”.
We shall be happy to assist in case of any clarifications. For a deeper discussion, feel free to revert us at services@knmindia.com
Disclaimer: Information in this note is intended to provide only a general update of the subjects covered. It is not intended to be a substitute for detailed research or the exercise of professional judgment. KNM accepts no responsibility for loss arising from any action taken or not taken by anyone using this publication.

Executive Summary
Income Tax
Goods & Services Tax (GST) & Customs
Companies Act 2013/ Other Laws.

“Exchange” means a person that operates an application or platform for transferring virtual digital assets, which matches buy and sell trades and executes the same on their application or platform.
Subscription to websites or platforms or applications.

Issue 1: – In case a registered person (A) issues a tax invoice without a supply of goods and services to another registered person (B), then such an activity does not satisfy the criteria of “Supply” as defined u/s 7 of the CGST Act.
However, The Registered Person ‘A’ shall be liable for penal action under section 122 (1)(ii) to a penalty of Rs 10,000/- or 10% of the tax due from such person, whichever is higher under the CGST Act for issuing tax invoices without actual supply of goods or services or both.
Issue 2: – In case a registered person (A) issues a tax invoice without a supply of goods and services to another registered person (B). B further issue invoice along with the underlying supply of goods or services or both to his buyers and utilizes ITC availed on the basis of the above-mentioned invoices issued by ‘A’ for payment of outward tax liability.
Further, as per provisions of section 75(13) of CGST Act, if penal action for fraudulent availment or utilization of ITC is taken against ‘B’ under section 74 of CGST Act, no penalty for the same act, i.e. for the said fraudulent availment or utilization of ITC, can be imposed on ‘B’ under any other provisions of CGST Act, including under section 122.
Issue 3: – In case a registered person (A) issues a tax invoice without a supply of goods and services to another registered person (B). B utilizes ITC availed on the basis of the above-mentioned invoice. Further, issue a tax invoice to ‘C’ and passes ITC without the supply of goods or services or both.
However, The Registered Person ‘B’ shall be liable for penal action under section 122 (1)(ii) and section 122(1)(vii) to a penalty of Rs 10,000/- or 10% of the tax due from such person, whichever is higher of the CGST Act, for issuing invoices without any actual supply of goods and/or services as also for taking/ utilizing input tax credit without actual receipt of goods and/or services or both.
Furnishing of information regarding inter-State supplies made to unregistered persons, composition taxable persons, and UIN holders – Information sought in Table 3.2 of FORM GSTR-3B is required to be furnished. Along with details on e-commerce operator tax on supplies u/s 9(5) and supplies through e-commerce operator.
Furnishing of information regarding ITC availed, reversal thereof, and ineligible ITC in Table 4 of GSTR-3B –
a) any reversal of ITC or any ITC which is ineligible under any provision of the CGST Act should not be part of Net ITC Available in Table 4(C) and accordingly, should not get credited into the ECL of the registered person.
b) it is clarified that the reversal of ITC of ineligible credit under section 17(5) or any other provisions of the CGST Act and rules thereunder is required to be made under Table 4(B) and not under Table 4(D) of FORM GSTR3B.
c) the registered person is required to identify ineligible ITC as well as the reversal of ITC as per section 16 to arrive at the Net ITC available, which is to be credited to the ECL.
d) Registered person will report reversal of ITC, which are not permanent in nature and can be reclaimed in the future subject to fulfillment of specific conditions, such as on account of rule 37 of CGST Rules (non-payment of consideration to the supplier within 180 days), section 16(2)(b) and section 16(2)(c) of the CGST Act in Table 4 (B) (2).
e) Ineligible ITC on account of the limitation of the time period as delineated in sub-section (4) of section 16 of the CGST Act, which has not been auto-populated in Table 4(A) of GSTR-3B is to be mentioned in others under 4 (D) 2.
Matter 1: Refund claimed by the recipients of supplies regarded as deemed export
a) The ITC of tax paid on deemed export supplies, allowed to the recipients vide Circular No. 147/03/2021-GST dated 12.03.2021 only for enabling them to claim a refund of such tax paid on the portal, is not ITC in terms of the provisions of Chapter V of the CGST Act, 2017. Therefore, the ITC so availed by the recipient of deemed export supplies would not be subjected to provisions of Section 17 of the CGST Act, 2017.
b) The ITC of tax paid on deemed export supplies, allowed to the recipients for claim refund of such tax paid, is not ITC in terms of the provisions of Chapter V of the CGST Act, 2017. Therefore, such ITC availed by the recipient of deemed export supply for claiming a refund of tax paid on supplies regarded as deemed exports is not to be included in the “Net ITC”.
Matter 2: Clarification on various issues of section 17(5) of the CGST Act.
a) It is clarified that the proviso at the end of section 17(5)(b) of the CGST Act is applicable to the entire clause (b) which is as under:
“Provided that the input tax credit in respect of such goods or services or both shall be available, where it is obligatory for an employer to provide the same to its employees under any law for the time being in force.”
b) It is clarified that “leasing” referred to in section 17(5)(b)(i) refers to the leasing of motor vehicles, vessels, and aircraft only and not to the leasing of any other items. Accordingly, availing of ITC is not barred under section 17(5)(b)(i) of the CGST Act in case of leasing, other than leasing motor vehicles, vessels, and aircraft.
Matter 3: Perquisites provided by the employer to the employees as per contractual agreement.
a) As per Schedule III to the CGST Act provides that “services by an employee to the employer in the course of or in relation to his employment” will not be considered as supply of goods or services and hence GST is not applicable on services rendered by an employee to employer-provided they are in the course of or in relation to employment.
b) Any perquisites provided by the employer to its employees in terms of the contractual agreement entered into between the employer and the employee are in lieu of the services provided by an employee to the employer in relation to his employment. It follows therefrom that perquisites provided by the employer to the employee in terms of the contractual agreement entered into between the employer and the employee, will not be subjected to GST when the same is provided in terms of the contract between the employer and employee.
Matter 4: Utilisation of the amounts available in the electronic credit ledger and the electronic cash ledger for payment of tax and other liabilities.
a) It is clarified that any payment towards output tax, whether self-assessed in the return or payable as a consequence of any proceeding instituted under the provisions of GST Laws, can be made by utilization of the amount available in the electronic credit ledger of a registered person.
b) As per section 49(4), the electronic credit ledger can be used for making payment of output tax only under the CGST Act or the IGST Act. It cannot be used for making payment of any interest, penalty, fees, or any other amount payable under the said acts. Similarly, an electronic credit ledger cannot be used for payment of an erroneous refund sanctioned to the taxpayer, where the such refund was sanctioned in cash.
c) As per section 49(3) of the CGST Act, the amount available in the electronic cash ledger may be used for making any payment towards tax, interest, penalty, fees, or any other amount payable under the provisions of the GST Laws.
Extension of the time limit specified 73(10) for issuance of order u/s 73(9) for recovery of tax not paid or short paid or of input tax credit wrongly availed or utilized, in respect of a tax period for the financial year 2017-18, up to the 30th day of September 2023.
Exclusion of the period from the 1st March 2020 to the 28 of February 2022 for computation of the period of limitation u/s 73(10) of the said Act for issuance of order u/s 73(9) of the said Act, for recovery of erroneous refund.
Exclusion of the period from the 1st March 2020 to the 28th February 2022 for computation of the period of limitation for filing refund application under section 54 or section 55 of the said Act.
NSE has notified a new module for filing of information required under Regulation 46 and 62 of SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 on NEAPS. NSE has directed the listed to furnish information required under Regulations 46 & 62 of Listing Regulations by July 18, 2022. As per Regulation 46 and Regulation 62 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulation, 2015, the listed entities are required to maintain a functional website containing basic information about the Company. In order to ensure effective enforcement of the Listing Regulations, the Exchange has developed a new module in NEAPS (NSE Electronic Application Processing System) wherein all the listed entities are required to provide the URLs of the information required under Regulations 46 & 62 of Listing Regulations through the prescribed path and for any subsequent modification to be done a separate path is prescribed by the NSE. NSE has further extended the last date of submissions from July 18, 2022, to August 31, 2022, through a separate circular.
The Ministry of Commerce and Industry has notified the Special Economic Zones (Third Amendment) Rules, 2022 to further amend the Special Economic Zones Rules, 2006. Through this amendment a new Rule 43A which deals with work from home has been notified to provide that a Unit may permit its employees, including contractual employees, to work from home or from any place outside the Special Economic Zone in accordance with this rule. The Unit shall submit its proposal for work from home to the Development Commissioner through email or physical application, which shall contain the terms and conditions of work from home, including the date from which the permission for work from home shall be utilized and the details of the employees to be covered by such permission for work from home. Further, every proposal for permission to work from home or an application for extension of the permit shall be submitted, at least fifteen days in advance, to the Development Commissioner, except in the case of the employees who are temporarily incapacitated or traveling. The proposal for work from home shall cover a maximum of fifty percent of the total employees, including contractual employees, of the Unit and the Unit shall maintain an accurate attendance record for the entire period of permission for work from home and shall submit to the Development Commissioner, from time to time. The Unit may provide to an employee such goods, including a laptop, computer, video projection system, other electronic equipment, and secured connectivity (for virtual private network, virtual desktop infrastructure) to establish a connection between the employee and work related to the project of the unit with the prior permission of the Specified Officer to temporarily remove such goods to the Domestic Tariff Area without payment of duty or integrated goods and services tax.
The Department of Economic Affairs has issued a notification to declare Zero Coupon Zero Principal instruments as securities under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956. It is further clarified that “zero coupons zero principal instruments” means an instrument issued by a Not for Profit organization that shall be registered with the Social Stock Exchange segment of a recognized Stock Exchange in accordance with the regulations made by the Securities and Exchange Board of India. The Social Stock Exchange (SSE) is a novel concept in India and such a move is meant to serve private and non-profit sector providers by channeling greater capital to them. Social enterprises eligible to participate in the SSE should be entities — NPOs and for-profit social enterprises having social intent and impact as their primary goal. With regard to fundraising, it has been proposed that eligible NPOs may raise funds through equity, zero coupons zero principal bonds, mutual funds, social impact funds, and development impact bonds. Further, NPOs desirous of raising funds on the SSE will be required to be registered with the exchange. This move will help many organizations including corporates to utilize their fund marked for social responsibility and also help non-profit organizations to get funds in a more transparent manner. In simple words, neither any interest is paid nor principal is repaid under Zero coupon zero principal.
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has issued clarification regarding the applicability of GST on services provided by FSSAI. It is notified to all stakeholders that GST at the prescribed rate would be applicable on all services provided by FSSAI commencing July 18, 2022. The rates for various services such as the issue of Central license, product approval fee, Food Safety Mitra fee, import clearance fee, etc, will be revised accordingly.
Disclaimer: Information in this note is intended to provide only a general update of the subjects covered. It is not intended to be a substitute for detailed research or the exercise of professional judgment. KNM accepts no responsibility for loss arising from any action taken or not taken by anyone using this publication. Updates are for the period 25.06.2022 till 25.07.2022


Income Tax
The exemption is applicable provided the lessor furnishes a declaration in Form no. 1 prescribed in the notification to the lessee giving details of 10 assessment years for which the lessor has opted for claiming deduction u/s 80LA(2) r.w.s 80LA(1A) of the Income-tax Act. The lessee shall not deduct tax at source for those 10 years on receipt of such declaration and make the disclosure accordingly in the withholding tax returns to be filed by the lessee (for other years, lessee shall continue to withhold tax at source).
According to the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) amendment rules 2022, Rule 13 is amended to provide the revised penalty provision for non-compliance or contravention with any of the provisions. It is provided that any non-compliance or contravention with any of the provisions will attract a penalty of ₹5,000/- and where the contravention is a continuing one, a further fine of ₹500/- for every day during the period of contravention. This applies to offenses for which the penalty is not specified elsewhere in the law. The rule has been amended to drop a reference to Section 450 of the Companies Act which specifies a cap of ₹200,000/- in the case of a company and ₹50,000/- for an officer in default or any other person for offenses that persist.
MCA has tightened the norms for the appointment of any person, as director in an Indian Company, who is a national of a country that shares a land border with India. Accordingly, in case the person seeking appointment is a national of a country that shares a land border with India, necessary security clearance from the Ministry of Home Affairs, the Government of India shall also be attached along with the consent. Further, no application number shall be generated in case of the person applying for the Director Identification Number is a national of a country that shares a land border with India, unless necessary security clearance from the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India has been attached along with an application for Director Identification Number.
The issues taken up in this report are based on a review of stakeholder suggestions, raised in stakeholder consultations conducted by the MCA and the IBBI or sent as public comments to the MCA. The Insolvency Law Committee in its 5th report has made key recommendations to strengthen the bankruptcy framework in India. Key recommendations include i) Mandating Reliance on IUs for Establishing Default; ii) Grant of exemptions from Scope of Moratorium only in exceptional circumstances; iii) Issues related to Avoidable Transactions and Improper Trading; iv) Curbing Submission of Unsolicited Resolution Plans and Revisions of Resolution Plans; v) Timeline for approval or rejection of resolution plan; vi) Standard of conduct of the Committee of Creditors (CoC); vii) Stakeholders Consultation Committee (SCC); viii) Secured Creditor’s Contribution; ix) Voluntary Liquidation Process: x) Operationalising the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Fund (IBC Fund); xi) Additional changes w.r.t Appellate mechanism for Orders issued under Section 220 etc. The recommendations of the committee will further strengthen the Insolvency & Bankruptcy framework in India by providing clarity and improving the process under the code. The committee will monitor further developments and keep striving to enhance the effectiveness of the Indian Insolvency framework.
The amendment is brought under Rule 6 which deals with compliances required by a person eligible and willing to restore his name in the independent director databank. Accordingly, any individual whose name has been removed from the databank may apply for restoration of his name on payment of fees of one thousand rupees and the institute shall allow such restoration subject to the conditions, that his name shall be shown in a separate restored category for a period of one year from the date of restoration within which, he shall be required to pass the online proficiency self-assessment test and thereafter his name shall be included in the databank, only, if he passes the said online proficiency self-assessment test and in such case, the fees paid by him at the time of initial registration shall continue to be valid for the period for which the same was initially paid; and in case he fails to pass the online proficiency self-assessment test within one year from the date of restoration, his name shall be removed from the data bank and he shall be required to apply afresh for inclusion of his name in the databank.
The amendment brought revisions to the procedure for striking off a company. Accordingly, where the Registrar, on examining the application made in Form STK-2, finds that it is necessary to call for further information or finds such application or any document annexed therewith is defective or incomplete in any respect, he shall inform the applicant to remove the defects and re-submit the complete Form within fifteen days from the date of such information, failing which the Registrar shall treat the Form as invalid in the electronic record, and shall inform the applicant. After the re-submission of the Form or document, if the Registrar finds that the Form or document is defective or incomplete in any respect, he shall give the further time of fifteen days to remove such defects or complete the Form, failing which the Registrar shall treat the Form as invalid in the electronic record and shall inform the applicant, accordingly. Any re-submission of the application in Form STK-2 made prior to the commencement of the Companies (Removal of Names of Companies from the Register of Companies) Amendment Rules, 2022 shall not be counted for the purposes of reckoning the maximum number of re-submissions of such Form.
Through this amendment, MCA has added a new sub-rule 4 in Rule 25A of the Companies (Compromises, Arrangements and Amalgamations) Rules, 2016, to provide that in case of a compromise or an arrangement or merger or demerger between an Indian company and a company or body corporate which has been incorporated in a country which shares a land border with India, a declaration in Form No. CAA-16 shall be required at the stage of submission of an application under Section 230 of the Act. Accordingly, a new Form CAA – 16 is also notified which is to be signed by the authorised representative of the companies involved and a declaration to be provided that whether the company/body corporate is not required to obtain prior approval under the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 or not. A copy of the approval is also required to be attached with the Form CAA-16.
MCA has been observed that various Section 8 companies are altering their object clause for carrying out micro-finance activities by way of passing Special Resolution, changing Activity code and subsequently filing of e-form MGT-14 with the concerned ROCs, even though at initial incorporation, the ROC (CRC) is not allowing Section 8 companies to get incorporated with the objects of microfinance activities in view of Ministry’s direction letter no. No. 05/33/2017-CL.V dated 10.02.2020 and letter dated 31.8.2020. It is clarified that immediate action on the part of RoCs is required as per law, including changing their objects to prevent such companies from carrying out micro-finance activities. Further, the Office of DGCoA shall ensure strict compliance by all the ROCs with the instructions contained in the letters issued earlier by the Ministry on this subject. Further, the ROCs shall also circulate these directions to all the officers/officials to ensure examination in accordance with the law, while processing e-forms relating to Incorporation of Companies and Change in Objects of the MOA of Section 8 companies registered under the Companies Act, 2013.
As per Clause 9 of SEBI KYC (Know Your Client) Registration Agency (KRA) Regulations, 2011. The KYC records of all existing clients (who have used Aadhaar as an officially valid document (OVD) shall be validated within a period of 180 days from August 01, 2022. and for those clients who have completed KYC using non-Aadhaar OVD, their records will be validated only after they have given their Aadhaar number.
All Demat accounts maintained by stock brokers should be appropriately tagged. All Demat accounts of stock brokers which are untagged need to be appropriately tagged by June 30, 2022, under the categories which include Proprietary Account to Hold Own Securities; Pool account for Settlement Purposes; Client Unpaid Securities Account to Hold Unpaid Securities of Clients; Client Securities Margin Pledge Account for Margin obligations to be given by way of Pledge/ Re-pledge, and Client Securities under Margin Funding Account to Hold funded securities in respect of margin funding. Further, credit of securities shall not be allowed in any Demat account left untagged from July 01, 2022, onwards. Credits on account of corporate actions shall be permitted. The debit of securities shall also not be allowed in any Demat account left untagged from August 01, 2022. Stock Broker shall obtain permission from Stock Exchanges to allow tagging of such Demat accounts from August 01, 2022, onwards. Stock Exchange shall grant such approval within two working days after imposing the penalty as per their internal policy.
Based on the representations received from REITs/InvITs, SEBI has decided to further extend the facility to conduct annual meetings through VC/OAVM. Besides, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), last month, extended the facility of holding AGMs and EGMs through VC/OAVM till December 31, 2022. For conducting such meetings, they need to comply with the procedure prescribed by the regulator. Among other requirements, recorded transcripts of the meetings held through VC or OAVM should be maintained in the safe custody of the investment managers of InvIT or managers of the REIT. Also, InvITs and REITs are required to upload the transcripts on their respective websites as soon as possible after the conclusion of the meetings.
For any dispute between the member and the client relating to or arising out of the transactions in the Stock Exchange, which is of civil nature, the complainant/ member shall first refer the complaint to the IGRC and/ or to Arbitration Mechanism provided by the Stock Exchange before resorting to other remedies available under any other law. A complainant/member, who is not satisfied with the recommendation of the IGRC shall avail the arbitration mechanism of the Stock Exchange for settlement of complaints within three months from the date of IGRC recommendation. For the arbitration application received without going through the IGRC mechanism, the time period of three months will not apply, and for such cases, the limitation period for filing arbitration will be governed by the law of limitation i.e., The Limitation Act, 1963.
The new framework will come into force with effect from 1st June 2022. The Arbitration Mechanism shall be initiated post exhausting all actions for resolution of complaints including those received through the SCORES Portal. The Arbitration reference shall be filed with the Stock Exchange where the initial complaint has been addressed. In case of arbitration matters involving a claim of up to Rs. 25 lakhs, a sole arbitrator shall be appointed and, if the value of the claim is more than Rs. 25 lakhs, a panel of three arbitrators shall be appointed. The arbitration and appellate arbitration shall be conducted at the regional center of the stock exchange nearest to the shareholder(s) /investor(s). The stock exchanges shall preserve the documents related to arbitration for five years from the date of the Arbitral award, appellate arbitral award or Order of the Court, as the case may be; and register the destruction of records relating to the above, permanently. The stock exchanges shall disclose on its website, details of the disposal of arbitration proceedings and details of arbitrator-wise disposal of arbitration proceedings as per the formats prescribed by SEBI for already available arbitration mechanisms.
The Monetary Policy Committee of the Reserve Bank of India has decided to remain focused on the withdrawal of accommodation to ensure that inflation remains within the target going forward while supporting growth. The Rural cooperative banks can now extend finance to commercial real estate (loans to residential housing projects) within the existing aggregate housing finance limit of 5% of total assets. To further augment customer convenience and facilitate recurring payments like subscriptions, insurance premia and education fees of larger value, the limit per transaction for e-mandate-based recurring payments increased from ₹5,000 to ₹ 15,000.
The directions shall apply to the Non-centrally cleared foreign exchange derivative contracts undertaken in terms of the Foreign Exchange Management (Foreign Exchange Derivative Contracts) Regulations, 2000 and non-centrally cleared interest rate derivative contracts undertaken in terms of the Rupee Interest Rate Derivatives (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2019 and any other non-centrally cleared derivative (NCCD) contract as may be specified by the Reserve Bank. The entities which shall be classified as Domestic Covered Entities under these Directions include Entities regulated by a financial sector regulator (including branches of foreign banks operating in India) and having an Average Aggregate Notional Amount (AANA) of outstanding NCCDs of ₹25,000 crore and above, on a consolidated group-wide basis and Other resident entities having an AANA of outstanding NCCDs of ₹60,000 crore and above, on a consolidated group-wide basis. The Non-resident financial entities have an AANA of outstanding NCCDs of USD 3 billion and above, on a consolidated group-wide basis and Other non-resident entities have an AANA of outstanding NCCDs of USD 8 billion and above, on a consolidated group-wide basis shall be classified as Foreign Covered Entities under these Directions.
Submission of returns physically or through email will not be considered. As per regulation 2.1.13 of Food Safety and Standards (Licensing and Registration of Food Businesses) Regulations, 2011, every licensee shall on or before 31st May of each year, submit a return, in ‘Form D-1’ to the Licensing Authority in respect of each class of food products handled by him during the previous financial year. Provided however that every licensee engaged in manufacturing of milk and/or milk products shall file half yearly returns for the periods 1st April to 30th September and 1st October to 31st March of every financial year in the form D-2, as provided in Schedule-2 of these regulations. Such returns will be filed within a month from the end of the period. A separate return shall be filed for every license issued under the Regulations, irrespective of whether the same Food Business Operator holds more than one license.
Disclaimer: Information in this note is intended to provide only a general update of the subjects covered. It is not intended to be a substitute for detailed research or the exercise of professional judgment. KNM accepts no responsibility for loss arising from any action taken or not taken by anyone using this publication. Updates are for the period 25.05.2022 till 25.06.2022

Section 194R: Deduction of TDS if benefits/Perquisites provided by any person to a Resident arising from business/profession.
Applicability :
• Value of benefit or perquisite provided > Rs. 20,000 (Cash or Kind or both).
• Rate @ 10%
• If cash is not sufficient then Advance tax must be paid by the recipient on such benefits/Perquisites.
Exception:
• Individual or a HUF is not liable to deduct if immediately preceding financial year:
o business turnover < one crore rupees or,
o profession gross receipts < fifty lakh rupees
Clarification 1: Is it necessary that the person providing benefit or prerequisite needs to check if the amount is taxable under clause (iv) of section 28 of the Act, before deducting tax under section 194R of the Act?
• No.
• The deductor is not required to check or verify the taxability of the amount or the rate of taxability in the hands of the recipient, whether as a resident or non-resident.
Clarification 2: Is it necessary that the benefit or prerequisite must be in kind for section 194R of the Act to operate?
• No.
• Benefits can be in cash or kind or partly in cash and in-kind
• Deductor required to deduct TDS, whether the benefit or perquisite is either in cash or in-kind or partly in cash or partly in kind.
Clarification 3: Is there any requirement to deduct tax under section 194R of the Act, when the benefit or perquisite is in the form of a capital asset?
• Yes
• Tax deducted in all cases where benefit or prerequisite (of whatever nature) is provided.
• Courts have held many benefits or perquisites to be taxable even though they are in the nature of capital assets.
• Deductor is not required to check if the benefits or perquisites are taxable in the hands of the recipient.
Clarification 4: Whether sales discounts, cash discounts, or rebates beneficial or perquisite?
• No tax is not required to be deducted u/s 194R on sales discount, cash discount, and rebates allowed to customers.
• Even in case, a seller is offering a free item on a certain purchase, still it will not be taxable. For Example, Sellers offer 2 items free with the purchase of 10 items. But this is not a case of free sample, in case of the free sample having worth more than INR 20000 will become under the preview of TDS u/s 194R
• Examples of benefits/perquisites on which tax is required to be deducted – free Samples, car, TV, computers, gold coin, mobile phone, sponsors a trip upon achieving certain targets, free ticket for an event, medicine samples free to medical practitioners.
• The provision of section 194R of the Act shall not apply if the benefit or perquisite is being provided to a Government entity, like a Government hospital, not carrying on business or profession. • Benefits/Perquisites received by the Owner/director/employee/their relative of the recipient entity will be taxable in the hands of the recipient entity.
For Example, if the benefit or perquisite is provided to a doctor who is working as a consultant in the hospital. In this case, the benefit or perquisite the provider may deduct tax under section 94R of the Act with the hospital as the recipient, and then the hospital may again deduct tax under section 194R of the Act for providing the same benefit or prerequisite to the consultant. To remove the difficulty, as an alternative, the original benefit or perquisite the provider may directly deduct tax under section 194R of the Act in the case of the consultant as a recipient.
Clarification 5: How is the valuation of benefit/prerequisite required to be carried out?
⦁ The valuation would be based on the fair market value(FMV) of the benefit or perquisite except in the following cases:-
⦁ benefit/perquisite provider has purchased the benefit/prerequisite before providing it to the recipient i.e. purchase price shall be the value for such benefit/perquisite.
⦁ benefit/perquisite provider manufactures such items given as benefit/prerequisite, then the price that it charges to its customers for such items shall be the value for such benefit/perquisite.
⦁ GST will not be included for the purpose of valuation.
Clarification 6: Many times, a social media influencer is given a product of a manufacturing company so that he can use that product and make audio/video to speak about that product on social media. Is this product given to such influencer a benefit or perquisite?
• If the product is returned to the manufacturing company after using-: No TDS u/s 194R.
• If the product is retained -: then it will be in the nature of benefit/perquisite and taxes are required to be deducted under section 194R of the Act.
Clarification 7: Whether reimbursement of the out-of-pocket expense incurred by the service provider in the course of rendering service is benefit/perquisite?
• Yes, however, it depends on the facts of the case. Let’s take an example If Mr. X gets services from the services provider says Y. If Mr. Y takes the services of the traveling agent, Mr. Z, then:

Clarification 8: If there is a dealer conference to educate the dealers about the products of the company – Is it benefit/perquisite?
• No if dealer/business conference is held with the prime object to educate dealers/customers.
• However, such a conference must not be in the nature of incentives/benefits to select dealers/customers who have achieved particular targets.
Further, in the following cases, the expenditure would be considered as a benefit or prerequisite for the purposes of section 194R of the Act:
(i) Expense attributable to leisure trip or leisure component, even if it is incidental to the dealer/business conference.
(ii) Expenditure incurred for family members accompanying the person attending dealer/business conference
(iii) Expenditure on participants of dealer/business conference for days which are on account of prior stay or overstay beyond the dates of such conference.
Clarification 9: Section 194R provides that if the benefit/prerequisite is in kind or partly in kind (and cash is not sufficient to meet TDS) then the person responsible for providing such benefit or perquisite is required to ensure that tax required to be deducted has been paid in respect of the benefit or perquisite, before releasing the benefit or perquisite. How can
such person be satisfied that the tax has been deposited?
• Benefits provider provides benefit in kind to a recipient and tax is required to be deducted under section 194R of the Act, the Benefit the provider is required to ensure that the tax required to be deducted has been paid by the recipient. Such recipients would pay tax in the form of advance tax.
• In Form 26Q he will need to show it as tax deducted on the benefit provided.
Clarification 10: Section 194R would come into effect from the I” July 2022. The second proviso to subsection (I) of section 194R of the Act provides that the provision of this section does not apply where the value or aggregate of the value of the benefit or perquisite provided or likely to be provided to a resident during the financial year does not exceed twenty
thousand rupees. It is not clear how this limit of twenty thousand is to be computed for the Financial Year 2022-23?
• Since, the threshold of Rs 20,000 is with respect to the financial year
• Calculation of value or aggregate of the value of the benefit or perquisite shall be counted from 1″ April 2022.
• However, The benefit or perquisite which has been provided on or before 30″ June 2022, would not be subjected to tax deduction under section 194R of the Act.
Disclaimer: Information in this note is intended to provide only a general update of the subjects covered. It is not intended to be a substitute for detailed research or the exercise of professional judgment. KNM accepts no responsibility for loss arising from any action taken or not taken by anyone using this publication.